[MC1171611]

Originally Posted by stephanos

Yes I know that Job is speaking of the past. I was using that verse to shew that "sons of God" is a reference to angels. Jesus also said that we'd be like the angels after the resurrection:

For in the resurrection they neither marry, nor are given in marriage, but are as the angels of God in heaven. (Matthew 22:30 KJV)

So maybe the reason we're not mentioned as a Church after Revelation 3 is because we've become angels.

Peace and Love,
Stephen

Stephen,

In the resurrection, or at the Rapture, we physically receive the Image of God, the same image that Adam was originally created in. In Luke, Adam is called "the son of God," and he was created in God's image, but in Genesis 3, Adam begat Seth who was after his own image. Because of the fall of man and sin entering into the world, we are born in Adam's image, but reborn in God's image (spiritually).

In the rapture and coinciding resurrection of the dead, we receive our glorified bodies, which are physical images of God. That's what a "son of God" is: an image or "copy" of God. The angels are simply copies of God, Jesus was the image of the Invisible God, and when we are born again, we are made in the image of God.

In eternity, we are in effect "little Jesuses," or identical copies of Him, which is why Jesus said we would be as the angels of God, not being married: we are His image!

So no, we don't become angels, though we do become LIKE angels.

[stephanos]

Originally Posted by MC1171611

Stephen,

In the resurrection, or at the Rapture, we physically receive the Image of God, the same image that Adam was originally created in. In Luke, Adam is called "the son of God," and he was created in God's image, but in Genesis 3, Adam begat Seth who was after his own image. Because of the fall of man and sin entering into the world, we are born in Adam's image, but reborn in God's image (spiritually).

In the rapture and coinciding resurrection of the dead, we receive our glorified bodies, which are physical images of God. That's what a "son of God" is: an image or "copy" of God. The angels are simply copies of God, Jesus was the image of the Invisible God, and when we are born again, we are made in the image of God.

In eternity, we are in effect "little Jesuses," or identical copies of Him, which is why Jesus said we would be as the angels of God, not being married: we are His image!

So no, we don't become angels, though we do become LIKE angels.

I agree with what you're saying here. However I don't think we'll be identical copies of Christ, as in a mirror image of Him. But I think our bodies will be "like" His.

Peace and Love,
Stephen

[CKG]

I've often heard the term "Bride of Christ", but have never thought too much about it and currently don't have a position on it so these are just a couple of observations.

John 3
26. And they came unto John, and said unto him, Rabbi, he that was with thee beyond Jordan, to whom thou barest witness, behold, the same baptizeth, and all men come to him. 27. John answered and said, A man can receive nothing, except it be given him from heaven. 28. Ye yourselves bear me witness, that I said, I am not the Christ, but that I am sent before him. 29. He that hath the bride is the bridegroom: but the friend of the bridegroom, which standeth and heareth him, rejoiceth greatly because of the bridegroom's voice: this my joy therefore is fulfilled. 30. He must increase, but I must decrease.

Looking at the context it's obvious John the Baptist is "the friend of the bridegroom, which standeth and heareth him," and "rejoiceth greatly because of the bridegroom's voice:". John was the one sent to prepare the way of the Lord and as a witness of Him so when Jesus came John could say "my joy therefore is fulfilled". If John was not the friend, but as an Israelite a member of the bride of Christ, he would not have said "He (Jesus) must increase, but I must decrease".

John 1
29. The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world. 30. This is he of whom I said, After me cometh a man which is preferred before me: for he was before me. 31. And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water.

This passage doesn't say anything about a bride or bridegroom. It says "that he (Jesus) should be made manifest to Israel". Was He made manifest to Israel as their bridegroom? Wouldn't it make more sense to say He was made manifest as their Messiah (John 1:41) or their King (Matthew 4:17, 21:1-5)?

[Biblestudent]

Originally Posted by CKG

Looking at the context it's obvious John the Baptist is "the friend of the bridegroom, which standeth and heareth him," and "rejoiceth greatly because of the bridegroom's voice:". John was the one sent to prepare the way of the Lord and as a witness of Him so when Jesus came John could say "my joy therefore is fulfilled". If John was not the friend, but as an Israelite a member of the bride of Christ, he would not have said "He (Jesus) must increase, but I must decrease".

<b>

John 1
29. The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world. 30. This is he of whom I said, After me cometh a man which is preferred before me: for he was before me. 31. And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water.

</b>

This passage doesn't say anything about a bride or bridegroom. It says "that he (Jesus) should be made manifest to Israel". Was He made manifest to Israel as their bridegroom? Wouldn't it make more sense to say He was made manifest as their Messiah (John 1:41) or their King (Matthew 4:17, 21:1-5)?

I made this explanation:
John 3:29 - John the Baptist is identifying to the bride who the bridegroom is, just like what He did IN JOHN CHAPTER ONE - that Christ should be made manifest to Israel.

Your explanation:
John 3:29 - John the Baptist is the friend of the bridegroom who prepares the way of the Lord (and that can also be seen in John 1:23).

So both of us used John 1 to explain the meaning of John 3:29. John 1 does not say that "the bridegroom be made manifest to the bride", nor does it say that "the friend of the bridegroom prepares the way for the bridegroom"; but we know that John 1 is indeed the CONTEXT of John 3:29. No doubt about it.

[chette777]

Great Work and study Biblestudent!!!! I agree 100%

[CKG]

This is a good study. I like being challenged and I like to base my beliefs on the Scriptures and not just because someone said so. I appreciate the good research that goes on on this forum. I've read several articles on the bride and there seem to be two main verses that stand out as far as is the bride the church or Israel.

And there came unto me one of the seven angels which had the seven vials full of the seven last plagues, and talked with me, saying, Come hither, I will shew thee the bride, the Lamb's wife. (Revelation 21:9)

and

For I am jealous over you with godly jealousy: for I have espoused you to one husband, that I may present you as a chaste virgin to Christ. (2 Corinthians 11:2)

[chette777]

These are considered supporting verse. the problem is there is no sound doctrinal verse on to which you can hang them. the two verse you quote are of two different events and Rev 2 needs to have the previous verses added where you see who and what the Bride is. and remember no Bride in mentioned in 2Cor. this is a private interpretation that has been handed down from the RC that was kept in the reformation unto today