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Old 08-28-2008, 06:15 AM
Scott Simons
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Default Holy Ghost – Holy Spirit- holy Spirit – holy spirit

The KJB 5 times uses holy Spirit, 1 time Holy Spirit, and 1 time holy spirit and uses Holy Ghost 90 times in 89 verses.

The holy Spirit is used 3 time in ASV, holy spirit not found

NKJV, holy Spirit 4 times, and holy spirit not found

NLT, NIV, Holy Spirit is used in all cases.

Why do you suppose they did this?
How important is it?

When perversion versions first started getting rooted in the church, they use to say it was just the way in the times they thought ghost was a spirit. I did not know better to answer that the King James Bible uses Holy Spirit also, but the real question what is the real difference?

I believe that Holy Ghost is used to ID the third person of the trinity.
The capitalization is questionable.

Last edited by Scott Simons; 08-28-2008 at 06:36 AM. Reason: add
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Old 08-28-2008, 01:47 PM
peopleoftheway peopleoftheway is offline
 
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Studying this , interesting point, if I find any truth or enlightenment in the subject by the grace of God I will let you know.
  #3  
Old 08-28-2008, 06:28 PM
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chette777 chette777 is offline
 
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You're close to the bed rock of the problem. People think that Ghost and spirit mean the same or can't mean the same thing. it is both with the scholars whomade teh translations depending on what point they are trying to make.

In essence the scholars have taken the role to be the authority on the Scriputre instead of God. in short they have become gods the same way the serpent said they would if they changed the word of God. See Genesis Chapter 3 for the perversion the serpent and Eve make of the words of God, by questioning the word, by ading to the word and by taking away from the word. All these the scholars do when they make their new translations.
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Old 08-29-2008, 03:51 AM
Scott Simons
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Default Holy

Quote:
Originally Posted by chette777 View Post
You're close to the bed rock of the problem
.

Close is not accurate, we are right on top of it. I believe that perversion versions actually infect the believer. So many times I read or hear people talk, and they use Holy Spirit, or any various capitalization of holy spirit. It is like they are unaware of any difference that the word of God has made and have bought into the versions perversion translations of the Holy Ghost. It may be that they never studied or thought about the difference, and why not? It is the most blatant change in the word of God, all version perversions has this in commonality, none use Holy Ghost. Come on people, we should know better. Think about it, why would we follow the path perverted versions have laid.

Follow up question that relates to this is;

Is the holy Spirit of promise used in the verse;
In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise, Ephesians 1:13

Is the holy Spirit the Holy Ghost, or is the Holy Spirit the Holy Ghost, is the holy spirit the Holy Ghost?

Is your spirit holy?

Chette, there are other infections but this one I think seems more important.
  #5  
Old 08-30-2008, 03:59 AM
Scott Simons
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Default Holy Ghost

I can see that most do not have a thought to share on Holy Ghost, I know this is a hard subject, but can we hear from you?
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Old 08-31-2008, 03:00 PM
peopleoftheway peopleoftheway is offline
 
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In regards to the Holy Ghost, I think that it has to do with Deity

1 John 5:7
"For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one." (verse omitted from NIV)

Modern versions remove a witness, the Holy Ghost, therefore the Godhead is denied

as for the case issue, I honestly don't know, But in All cases the Holy Ghost is capitalized, referring to him as a person and a member of the Godhead
  #7  
Old 08-31-2008, 04:35 PM
Scott Simons
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But why the Holy Spirit, and holy Spirit, and holy spirit?
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Old 08-31-2008, 07:54 PM
peopleoftheway peopleoftheway is offline
 
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In Psalm 51 when David mentions the holy spirit, this psalm I believe was written when David was backslidden after he had the affair with Bathsheba got her pregnant than had Uriah killed, could he be using it in the lower case to signify unworthiness of God's Holy Spirit possibly, I am not sure, do you think that the case of the letters really makes a difference ?
  #9  
Old 09-01-2008, 06:24 AM
Scott Simons
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It all does, does it?
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Old 09-01-2008, 09:28 AM
peopleoftheway peopleoftheway is offline
 
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I guess when the LORD sees fit Scott, we will ourselves be enlightened on the subject or some other brother will add to the topic
 

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