Bible Versions Questions and discussion about the Bible version issue.

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Old 07-04-2009, 09:44 PM
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tonybones2112 tonybones2112 is offline
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Originally Posted by pneuby View Post
I can accept a certain logic in the AV assertion that a perfect God, who values his word, and said He would preserve it, could certainly do so.

What I struggle with is this. . .

IF those (individual-chosen) words are SO important, and you assert that they most certainly are...

Right down to that 'jot and tittle', and you assert that they are...

Then, why did believers have to wait SO LONG?

Why would God make us wait 15 centuries with mere portions of NT Greek and Aramaic translations..
Later compiled {I presume} into complete Greek ones...
Then translated into Latin ones{which divurged one from another}...
Then into several imperfect English forms...
Then the 'PERFECT' English one...
Which THEN needed some re-tweeking...


Does Will, or anyone else have an article on this one?
Pneuby, God don't work to my schedule or your schedule. I don't have any struggle myself for that very reason. I'm not being critical, your question is a philisophical one with no real resolution. Let's take it to it's logical conclusion and say, why didn't God just wipe out Adam and Eve when they sinned and start all over again? LAcking that, why didnt He just hand Adam the complete book?

Do you know God knows what will happen in an hour and we don't? Draw a line on a piece of paper, put 2009 on the left and 2020 on the right. He sees time in the linear fashion our minds comprehends and knows what will happen 11 years from now, we don't. That's called faith. It's not up to us to demand from Him His motives in anything otherwise we are usurping His authority and demanding a "sign".

If you struggle it's because of a faith problem in His promise to preserve His words. Dr. Edwards Hills explained which to me is the greatest "proof", greater than manuscript evidence, and that's the internal evidence of the Bible you hold in your hands, called The Rule Of Faith. Will showed us the silly objection to the word "corn". I want to know why this verse with "corn" in it has worked effectually in every Christian who believed it.

Ro 5:6 For when we were yet without strength, in due time Christ died for the ungodly.
1Co 15:8 And last of all he was seen of me also, as of one born out of due time.
1Ti 2:6 Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.
1Pe 5:6 Humble yourselves therefore under the mighty hand of God, that he may exalt you in due time:

I have no way of knowing what form of Bible the Saxons had in 900 AD, I know we, the post ReformationBody of Christ are the first people in all of history to have a complete Bible. That is because of the breaking with Rome and the invention of the printing press.

You can't show me one single bit of archaeological evidence that anyone named Jesus Christ ever existed. How do we know? Faith in the Scriptures.

There is not one single shred of biological, chemical, pathological, evidence for the resurrection of the Lord, He was dead for 3 days and now He's alive.
How do we know? Faith in the Scriptures.

I have an inspired copy of every one of God's living words in my hands at this instant. How do I know? Faith in the Scriptures.

Our "great commission" is not found in Matthew 28 but II Cor. 5. I've not been told by Jesus Christ to speculate on why the Lakota Sioux didn't have a Bible in the 15th century but to be an ambassador for Christ. Have you led anyone to Christ this week?

Grace and peace my friend

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