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Old 06-14-2009, 01:58 PM
custer custer is offline
 
Join Date: May 2009
Location: Columbia KY
Posts: 74
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greenbear,

I am NOT going to try to quote you, because when I QUOTE YOU EXACTLY, you accuse me of manipulating your words!!! ??? !!! So, I'll just say that I am responding to your post #20!

First of all, why in the world do you people equate running cross-references with wresting the scriptures? Who put the cross-references in there? Are they there for a reason? Why are they there? It is truly mind-boggling (and sad) how many things you cheat yourself out of by in essence denying that "ALL scripture...is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:" Keep in mind that I am commenting on this AS A DISPENSATIONALIST...I know that we are in the age of grace and that our doctrine comes from Paul; but II Timothy 3:16 SAYS that if it's not there for doctrine, then it IS there for either reproof, correction, or instruction in righteousness!!! What about that is hard to understand?
My personal opinion (that you like to refer to) has nothing to do with what we find by using cross-references...if we believe (and I hope we all do) that God put EVERY SINGLE WORD of that King James Bible in there for a reason, then why would the cross-references not be relevant??? I am SOOOO not being ugly, but this is not rocket science! I am VERY THANKFUL for the way the Bible is put together!

For you (or anyone on here) that believes the Bible teaches we can't marry a divorced person, what can we do with I Cor. 7:27-28:
27 Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife.
28 But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned;...

I am asking this because I have NOT studied it; I just knew those verses were there and wonder how they fit with saying that we are commanded not to marry a divorced person...just from those verses, it's not logical to say that the person marrying the "thou" in verse 28 WOULD BE sinning by joining in the marriage. In other words, if it's not sin for one of the spouses, why would it be sin for the other? I hope my question makes sense!

Another thought on Paul not giving a lot of direct commands for us...The letters he wrote were to specific churches or people and dealt with the issues that were relevant to who he was writing to at the time. It doesn't make sense that he would admonish the saved folks in Galatia not to have a sex-change operation, for example! It simply wasn't pertinent to them! So can you prove from the Bible, IN PROPER CONTEXT, that a believer today shouldn't have such an operation? This example is like the others I brought up in the "love and race" thread that nobody wants to comment on! If you are saying or intimating (and you are/have) that I am making up Bible commands to fit my personal opinions or preconceived ideas, then why can't you deal with these examples? Now, I can be sarcastic, BUT THAT QUESTION WAS NOT SARCASTIC...I REALLY WANT TO KNOW! When I raised examples in the other thread (post #86,) you ignored them and changed the subject (post #95) back to the race issue (which, again, I'd like to discuss, but at another time.) Yes, I realize this topic SHOULD have a thread of its own!

Pam
www.custerfamilyfarm.com
 

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