[Greektim]

If it has been there all the time, then I am missing the significance of the KJV's capitalization emphasis. If the KJV was bringing out a theological point like Melchizedek as a type of Christ by capitalizing "king", then what about the emphasis in capitalization pre-1611 or pre-English translations? The type might have been there, but the significance or the emphasis wasn't until the KJV. That seems to be 1 of 2 things: translators bias in the translation to make a theological point or new revelation.