[PaulB]

Hi Bill after being so versed in the NASV I was totally shocked to find that the word “Slave” only appears once in the KJB. I am in no way promoting a servant as a slave but was simply stating that our modern day lingo tends to confuse the two (as the example was given in a previous post saying that the Bible doesn’t condemn slavery). I agree that it doesn’t condemn it (in the form of servant belonging to a master), yet it does condemn it in the sense of stealing and selling someone like one would with cattle. What I was getting at was that OT servants (the property of a master) would be seen today as a form of slavery and such an understanding may view the Bible to be promoting slavery.


Thanks for your comments


God bless

PaulB