Why did the "idiot Gnostic scribe" not also jerk the blood out of Ephesians 1:7?

Or is it just possible that a scribe inserted the blood in the Colossians passage because of his knowledge of the Ephesians passage?

One thing that concerns me about the "removal" arguments is that A) they invent an unporven reason for the removal, and B) they seem to have no adequate answer for the more likely insertion argument.