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#1
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On 1st Corinthians 13:8 - 10, the subject is "charity", and it never fails. Verse 10's "that which is perfect" isn't identified as anything in particular. The point is that the perfect will always replace the not-perfect. In this case, the completed will replace the not completed. Trying to use these verses to show tongues isn't for today is very weak in my opinion.
Using the "signs of an apostle" argument is a much stronger case to prove your position. But, chapters 12 and 14 has an apostle teaching the proper use of these "sign gifts". |
#2
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Yup, and NO ONE today is using the gift of tongues and the gift of interpretation according to how 1 Corinthians 14 instructs.
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#3
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Quote: Jerry Yup, and NO ONE today is using the gift of tongues and the gift of interpretation according to how 1 Corinthians 14 instructs.
And you know this how? |
#4
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By a simple comparison between their doctrine and practices on this issue with the Bible.
No women speaking in tongues or prophesying - yet the tongues movement is filled with women preachers and tongues-speakers. Only two or three speaking in one meeting, and taking turns, plus an interpretor or else they must be silent. Yet, I have seen whole churches doing this at one, no interpretor. The teaching that all should speak in tongues - when the Bible indicates that God did NOT give the gift to all. Plus, the teaching that it is the evidence of being saved and/or being filled with the Spirit of God - which does not line up with the Bible. The Bible also teaches it is the least of the gifts - yet charismatics and pentecostals want to make it the greatest. The gifts were given to to edify the church - yet many teach that you can have a private prayer tongue language (which the Bible does not teach anywhere). As has already been pointed out, tongues were a sign to lost Jews - yet we see many churches filled with Gentiles only who practice this. |
#5
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#6
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My exception to your statement is because you said "No One" today...
Unless you are omnipresent or omniscient, you can't make that claim. The instructions from Paul were to gentiles. It can be assumed there were abuses then, and there are abuses now. But that doesn't negate the authenticity of the gifts. Paul said in 1st Corintians 14:14 that he prayed with the spirit, sense small "s", his spirit. And he said his understanding was unfruitful. I take this to mean he must have spoke in tongues. 1 Corinthians 14:18 I thank my God, I speak with tongues more than ye all: He didn't say they didn't speak with tongues. 1 Corinthians 14:5 I would that ye all spake with tongues, but rather that ye prophesied: for greater is he that prophesieth than he that speaketh with tongues, except he interpret, that the church may receive edifying. He wanted them to speak in tongues, and set down the guidelines. 1 Corinthians 14:39 Wherefore, brethren, covet to prophesy, and forbid not to speak with tongues. He didn't want tongues to be forbidden, just kept under control. There's plenty of Scripture supporting tongues and its proper use. If you don't want to, then don't. 1 Corinthians 14:38 But if any man be ignorant, let him be ignorant. Like I believe was stated in another posting, ignorant isn't an insult. Just states a gap in knowledge. Wilfully ignorant is another matter. |
#7
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1 Corinthians is an epistle written when Paul was reaching the remnant of JEWS during the TRANSITION PERIOD in the book of Acts (a transition from LAW to GRACE). Tongues were a sign for the Jews. It WAS needful to have signs to confirm the word for them to believe. Now in this GRACE PERIOD, tongues have ceased; for God has stopped his dealings with the Jews (Rom. 9-11) and He's dealing now with the Body of Christ where there is no Jews, nor Gentiles.
I don't have the gift of tongues. Do I have to speak in tongues? Am I false preacher since I have no signs to "confirm the word" (Mark 16)? Tongues are languages. If you have the gift of tongues, talk to me in Hiligaynon. I would sure marvel if I hear you speak in my own tongue, wherein I was born. The guidelines in 1 Corinthians were set for those who spoke in tongues in the church during the early Acts period, and they have now ceased since there is no use for it today. The Jews had an advantage during the Acts period ("Jew first"), but now they don't. Last edited by Biblestudent; 03-03-2008 at 04:20 AM. Reason: from changed to for |
#8
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Ephesians 5:18-20 And be not drunk with wine, wherein is excess; but be filled with the Spirit; Speaking to yourselves in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord; Giving thanks always for all things unto God and the Father in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ; It doesn't say speak in tongues, but be filled with the Spirit, which means controlled or influenced by. That will result in praising God, exhorting the brethren, giving thanks to the Lord, etc. |
#9
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Paul spoke in tongues more than them all. Let's see, he knew Hebrew, spoke and wrote in Greek, and travelled as a missionary - so he knew many language/tongues. And he desired that they also knew more languages to get the Gospel out more.
Still, you haven't dealt with the instructions given in that chapter on how to use those tongues/languages. And some of your statements are based on assumptions - ie. he must have. Since when do we base theology on assumptions? |
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