[Forrest]

Originally Posted by tlewis3348

Since we know that there are some words in the original languages for which there exists no English word to fully describe, we must conclude that either one or the other is a fuller description of what was meant.

Therefore, if the English is the fuller description then that must mean that the originals were not as good of a description. Now God did inspire the original writers of the Bible (I think we can all agree on at least that); therefore, what they wrote is exactly the inspired word of God. Now as scribes copied the Bible there were differences that appeared (there are differences in the Greek manuscripts that exist, though very few). Does this mean that God has not preserved His Word? NO!

Do you believe that God, not man or scribes, kept and preserved His Word for us today in written form with no differences between what He "originally" meant and what we read today? Yes or no?

If so, do we have in our possession the written Word of God He originally meant to give us? Yes or no?

If so, which version do we have in our possession that contains what He originally meant to give us?