Greetings.
I am new here, and I am so glad to be here.
I have been on a quest for so long, but the Lord Jesus has ever guided me to where I needed to be. Perhaps one day I will share more of my journey, but to get to the point of this topic...

First, for too long I had been asking all the wrong questions!
I could not figure out, for example, why every single translation that I had seen had a slightly different translation for John 1:18. And I kept comparing it to the Received Text and the Nestle-Aband, and none translated it to the Greek manuscript that they stated that they used, whether it was the Nestle-Aband or the Received Text. I stumbled over that verse for a long, long time.
For example, I could not figure out-- if these two manuscripts said "God" why was it translated "Son"? And if begotten was actually "one, unique, only of its kind and so forth, why begotten? And even more if bosom of the Father, was an idiom, why does it have to be changed and figured out for me, and changed to "near" or "close" or "side"...how did "bosom" become "side"???
And round and round I went. And a bunch of purchases were made over time.
And then, what struck me was that now we have "revised" editions coming out with some of these more recent translations, and suddenly I stopped.
Was this a marketing ploy? What is going on? Are they playing with my head? I believe there is a translation out there that has changed that verse two or three times???

In these last several days I believe it was divine, I found a book online that helped me to see the history of the Bible.
20 years ago, I had bought a book on NT textual criticism but it was like a puzzle at the time, but now I understood.

The question to be asked, is why the change? What is the difference when Christ is replaced with God or the woman caught in adultery passages are removed, or fasting is removed and a host of other differences that can be found in the various translations.

The question to be asked, is why the change? Now I understand about the corruptions that man has done and why.
And I found myself so very glad and happy. KJV is complete, I believe and can be trusted. And people have trusted this Bible for some centuries.

So now I have a few questions, and want to ask "why" the change on the following two verses. Can someone direct me to where I can find out about the variances and the why???
Thanks so kindly.

Comparing with other translations and KJV...why...

John 17:11-12

Another question regarding the un-translated word in Matthew 18:14.
How significant is this word to the text?

Thanks so very kindly.