[Paladin54]

At the Christian high scool I go to, we are starting to memorize Philippians 2, two verses a week. My NIV teacher said that he would accept me giving it as written in the King James Bible. This week was the first two verses.

"If there be therefore, any consolation in Christ, if any comfort of love, if any fellowship of the Spirit, if any bowels and mercies,
fulfil ye my joy, that ye be likeminded, having the same mind, being of one accord, of one mind."

He asked me, "what do yo think bowels means here?"

I replied, "I haven't looked into why they used 'bowels' in this context, but I will find out".

I am a nag in my teacher's side for finding information in defense of the KJB, since it crushed the modern versions.

But, I lack understanding here. Why is bowels used in this context? Is he referring to the intestines? I see no other definition for bowels.