[Bill]

While listening to a radio program called "To every man an answer" hosted by Mike Kessler (CSN), I heard him talk about how he has been using the NKJV version but he had found a verse that he considers mistranslated in the NKJV. Matthew 17:15 talks about a "lunatick" who threw himself into the fire and water (apparently suicidal). The NKJV says the boy was "epileptic." Thiis change from lunatick to epileptic is a change in meaning because lunatick refers to a moon worshipping occult and epilepsy is a medical malfunction of the brain. Mike seems to trust the KJV most and is aware of the difference between theTR and Alexandrian manuscripts. The NIV says "seizure" which is a medical condition but the NASB agrees with the KJV and says lunatick. Does anyone know if this change is derived from the alexandrian manuscripts or if it is an example of individualized "dynamic equivalence" by translators.