[tonybones2112]

Originally Posted by Greektim

Point in fact, the truth is, the NKJV used the TR as a textual basis for the NT. This is the bias I was talking about, and the objective reality I seek to provide. I can be objective on the NKJV because while I like the NKJV as a translation, I would say that it is not superior to the original languages.

When you say "readings" I can only assume you mean variant readings that differ from the TR. If that is the case, I have yet to see anyone show me one place where the NKJV departs from the TR at all in the NT. At best, I see translational differences, but that has nothing to do with Alexandrian texts like p66 or p72 or Siniaticus. Hopefully, Tony, you can point something out to me about the NKJV where it does depart from the TR to an Alexandrian reading.

I'll do you one better:

http://www.kjv-asia.com/authorized_version_defence.htm
http://www.geocities.com/brandplucked/articles.html

Will Kinney, John Hinton, both linked to KJV-ASIA, I think several articles on this site, and the works of Dr. Peter Ruckman on the subject of the NKJV have already covered the Alexandrian readings and sectarian doctrinal biases inserted into the text of the "New" KJV much better than I have time to do right now Tim. You'll have to order Dr. Ruckman's books on it. Unless you'd like me to go to the sites above and copy and paste here the articles. I have a NKJV and have it on E-Sword for version comparisons. I embarked on a study of it a decade or so ago, and discovered it not to be a "translation" but merely the body of the KJV text with selectively cherry-picked Alexandrian readings and sectarian doctrines inserted. We had a discussion on two verses not long ago in this forum regarding the verses below dealing with the doctrine of imputed faith on the thread faith of Christ versus faith in Christ. The NKJV wipes out the doctrine and also in the verse from Galatians below, also throws out God's righteousness and substitutes just righteousness. Whose? Micheal the Archangel's? Elijah's? Moses? My copy of the NKJV also has footnotes on John 7:58-8:11, I John 5:7, Mark 16:9-20 and the other verses missing in the Alexandrian text stating the verses are not supposed to be there.

KJV Ga 2:16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
KJV Php 3:9 And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:

NKJV Ga 2:16 knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law but by faith in Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, that we might be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the law; for by the works of the law no flesh shall be justified.
NKJV Php 3:9 and be found in Him, not having my own righteousness, which is from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which is from God by faith;

Another corruption is Rev. 1:6, another witness for the deity of Jesus Christ, where the KJV translators allegedly violated the Granville-Sharp theory that was not invented until the 1700s:

KJV Rev 1:6 And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.
NKJV Rev 1:6 and has made us kings and priests to His God and Father, to Him be glory and dominion forever and ever. Amen.

The "KJVO"s have examined both sides of the NKJV issue, I think you have only examined one side, and before you can offer a truly objection position as Devil's Advocate, you need to examine both sides also.

Grace and peace brother

Tony