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Old 07-04-2009, 02:42 PM
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PaulB PaulB is offline
Join Date: Jun 2009
Location: The Northwest of England
Posts: 158
Default Hi Pnevby

Originally Posted by pneuby View Post

What I struggle with is this. . .

IF those (individual-chosen) words are SO important, and you assert that they most certainly are...

Right down to that 'jot and tittle', and you assert that they are...

Then, why did believers have to wait SO LONG?

Why would God make us wait 15 centuries with mere portions of NT Greek and Aramaic translations..
Later compiled {I presume} into complete Greek ones...
Then translated into Latin ones{which divurged one from another}...
Then into several imperfect English forms...
Then the 'PERFECT' English one...
Which THEN needed some re-tweeking...


Does Will, or anyone else have an article on this one?

Good question - I have attempted to touch on this issue in one or two of my posts, but I'm not sure whether they will answer all that you are asking.

If the KJB position is dismissed then the question gets more concerning - Why did we have to wait 21 Centuries and still not have a complete Bible?
I think that accepting the KJB position is much more satisfactory than any other case that hs been presented.
Only the KJB position confirms the promises that are written in the text of Scripture such as; "Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away." Mt.24.35

Also - Hi Bibleprotector - I couldn't have put it better myself!

God bless