How can Scrivener's Greek be jot and tittle perfect?
Scrivener was not infallible. So why should some think that his TR is? At least with the 1611 men, we can successfully argue that the providence of God was there at work to gather a whole group of the right men with access to the right materials to make the right result.
In their words, to make "one more exact Translation of the holy Scriptures in the English tongue".
Why should "exactness" be with Scrivener's work? There seems to be a mist over men's minds when it comes to the Greek. Somehow it is more sanctimonious and scientific if it is Greek.
Burgon shows something really interesting about the English, "If would really seem as if the Revisionists of 1611 had considered it a graceful achievement to vary the English phrase even on occasions where a marked identity of expression characterises the original Greek. When we find them turning ‘goodly apparel,’ (in S. James ii. 2,) into ‘gay clothing,’ (in ver. 3,) — we can but conjecture that they conceived themselves at liberty to act exactly as S. James himself would (possibly) have acted had he been writing English."
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