Manny, one question that I have had about Scrivener's edition is that since it was produced well after the KJB, and was "retrofitted" to the KJB, if Scrivener referred to the KJB for matching wording, then the KJB takes authority over his Greek edition. If Scrivener used other sources to produce his edition, then those sources become the authority. Which direction did he follow? (I have a copy from Dr. Waite, but it is Greek to me.
[sorry] )