Quote:
Originally Posted by LindaR
Don't we need to go by the definitions of those two words and discern how the word "profitable" is used in 2 Timothy 3:16?
Is the word "applicable" synonymous with "profitable" as used in this verse?
I looked up both of those words in the Websters 1828 Dictionary:
Webster's 1828 Dictionary [K-Z]
profitable
PROF'ITABLE, a. Yielding or bringing profit or gain; gainful; lucrative; as a profitable trade; profitable business; a profitable study or profession.
1. Useful; advantageous.
What was so profitable to the empire, became fatal to the emperor.
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Webster's 1828 Dictionary [A-J]
applicable
AP'PLICABLE, a. That may be applied; fit to be applied, as related to a thing; that may have relation to something else; as, this observation is applicable to the case under consideration.
IMO, being "profitable" doesn't necessarily mean "applicable". To tell you the truth, I'm  ! |
You may be misunderstanding me. I agree with you. All I am saying is that doctrine (that which is taught) is both "profitable" and "applicable" to the believer. I'm having a difficult time understanding how someone "could be mistaken" if they teach that the Word of God, in the OT or NT is both profitable for doctrine (that which is taught) and applicable to the NT believer.
"Wherewithal shall a young man cleanse his way? by taking heed thereto according to thy word" (Psalm 119:11).
"Now ye are clean through the word which I have spoken unto you" (John 15:3).