Quote:
Originally Posted by Luke
Zep 3:9 For then will I turn to the people a pure language, that they may all call upon the name of the LORD, to serve him with one consent.
What is this verse in relation to?
The first few verses of the chapter seem to place it during the tribulation, with the priests corrupting the sanctuary and the destruction of the oppressing city. The streets are desolate, wasted, and no man is seen in them (it's too hot! the sun is incredible during the tribulation). And then this verse shows up...
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Was Hebrew around in the days of Abram? Abram was a Sumerian of the lineage of Eber, an "eberu", "wanderer".. We know Hebrew was around when Joseph spoke to his brothers in Egypt. My belief the "heavenly language" is Hebrew Luke. This verse deals not with the Church but with Israel, the "pure language" being Hebrew, the language of God and Israel.
Given God's preeiminant place he gives Israel in eternity, I don't see English as being any type of eternal language or standard and it's silly to think otherwise. We can defend the KJV until we cross into untenable and unprovable areas.
Grace and peace
Tony