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Old 10-15-2008, 05:04 PM
Posts: n/a


I do not understand what you are trying to say, but I will try to clarify myself as best I can.

Originally Posted by JMWHALEN View Post
My comment: So, you "use" the KJV. Are you saying you "prefer" it, or it is your first "preference?"(correct me if I misunderstood you). I "use" a car manual, a "Strong's", a "dictionary…..
Originally Posted by JMWHALEN View Post
And I "prefer"/"like" ice crème, my "favorite"/"preference" being Vanilla , I "prefer" not going to work, my "preference being sleeping late, I "like"/"prefer" smoking, my "preference" being "Now" shorts, and I "prefer" other "religions" instead of Christianity…….
I use the KJV for my Bible reading wherever I am whether it is in church, in my room having devotions or witnessing to someone on the street. Yes, I do "prefer" it to the NASB, NIV, ESV, and all the other modern versions because these other versions greatly weaken many of the great doctrines of my faith (removing I John 5:7, for example, removes the one of the greatest proof texts on the Trinity that we have). Therefore, because I use the KJV in my devotions and in church and any other time, I refer to the Bible in my life I depend on it for guidance in my life. Further, I believe that any time I have a question in life I can go to it and find the answer. I use a Strong's concordance and a dictionary (Webster's 1828 Dictionary) as a tool to help me understand passages that are somewhat confusing to me. I also consult commentaries such as Matthew Henry's Commentary on the Whole Bible for further explanation although I do so with a critical eye because what he says is merely man's opinion on what the Bible means. The next section of your quote does not make any sense to me. I do not understand how ice cream, sleeping late, smoking, and other religions instead of Christianity relate to each other or to the topic being discussed. Are you trying to say that because I do not believe that God inspired the KJV translators when they did their work that I will soon fall to these things? If that is true then that is quite a stretch.

Originally Posted by JMWHALEN View Post
The question seems to me to be:
Originally Posted by JMWHALEN View Post
What do you believe? Do you believe that the KJV is the word of God? Yes or no?

"….that we can say that the KJV is as close (my emphasis) as we can get to God's inspired Word (my emphasis) in the English language…"

My comment: Is this "kinda like" "close to being pregnant", "close to being dead", "close to being alive", "close to being saved","close to being a Christian", close to being true", "close to being false", "close to being white", "close to being black"……...…….?

"Almost inspired"? "Closed to being inspired?"

"Then Agrippa said unto Paul, Almost thou persuadest (my emphasis)) me to be a Christian…” Acts 26:28
There are several words in the original languages for which we do not have an English word to describe fully. For example, one of the many facets of God's love is His loyal love to us. The Hebrew word that that expresses this concept is the word chesed. This word has been translated into the KJV as mercy or kindness. Strong's describes it as "kindness; by implication (towards God) piety; rarely (by opprobrium) reproof, or (subjectively) beauty: - favour, good deed (-liness, -ness), kindly, (loving-) kindness, merciful (kindness), mercy, pity, reproach, wicked thing.” However, no single English word fully describes this Hebrew word. Therefore, when the KJV translators translated that word they certainly did the best they could at finding the best English word to describe this Hebrew word. Consequently, it is obviously better to go back to the original language to find the full meaning of the word. Anyone that has learned a foreign language knows that this is true. So since I believe that God's inspire Word is preserved through the existing Greek and Hebrew manuscripts that have not been corrupted like the Alexandrian or Vatican texts (that is the Byzantine Text, Majority Text, Textus Receptus, or whatever you want to call it) and the entire meaning of the words cannot be captured through any translation, I must say that the KJV is as close to the intended meaning of the originals that we can get.

Having said all that, I would like to restate my main point. How can we say that the KJV is the only thing that we have today that is inspired today when there are good Christian men and women all over the world that cannot understand the English language? How has God preserved His Word to them? In addition, Did God preserve His Word before the KJV came into existence? Where was God's inspired Word to Martin Luther, Erasmus, Tyndale, Wycliffe, and King James himself? In other words, Where was God's inspired Word from A.D. 100-1611?

Last edited by tlewis3348; 10-15-2008 at 05:22 PM.