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Old 06-23-2009, 06:51 PM
HowlerMonkey
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Quote:
Originally Posted by bibleprotector View Post
they had better have perfect copies of the originals, or a sure method of finding out the actual Hebrew and Greek, and what they mean.

Even the translators of the King James Bible talked about the diversity of senses, and laboured to present a correct text rendering (rubbed, polished and perfected), so that they would present the Word of God in English. If it is sound (their word) and exact (their word) in Engish, how can it be altered?

If the originals are always correcting the English, when will the English be correct? The choice is either 1611 onward or never.
Are you suggesting that we don't possess perfect copies of the Hebrew and Greek texts? I would think that for God to have preserved His Word we would have to have perfect examples in Greek and Hebrew. Am I wrong?

When I say that the Hebrew and Greek correct the English, what I am suggesting is that where they differ (Matthew 23:24 for example) the Greek is correct and the English is not. I often use my Textus Receptus to be sure that I am correctly understanding the wording of the AV.