[chette777]

TBones,

I hope your reference to Acts 29 was just a typo as there is no Acts 29.

Interestingly enough at least you have divided the Baptism and limited to whom they were preaching the Jews. this may be the key as to why Paul never went into details to Gentiles about Baptism and it's purpose. the only thing he confronted was it was being used to cause division.

I do see that you are tying together of the Ministry of John the Baptist and the Priestly washing. however it is never said that that was part of his earthly ministry. As John told us plainly his ministry was to be the forerunner of Christ nothing more nothing less. His baptism as I see it was not for anointing the priests but if they had believed his message of the soon coming king and that the kingdom was at hand they were to be baptized as proof they believed his message. so they show their repentance by baptism and the result is remission of sins. Faith in the word John preached resulted in their work repentance and Baptismal obedience (works) which resulted in their sins being remitted (God's Grace).

And From what I understand from the scriptures is that it is the High Priest Job to anoint and wash the priests. Jesus will when he returns anoint Israel as a nation of priests. that doesn't take place until he establishes the Kingdom. John was in no way a high priest so he would be in violation of Exodus and Leviticus Rules and regulations. plus the Kingdom was not established so no need for the priest to be anointed until Christ is on the throne and then He as the Great High Priest will indeed do all that is required for the nation of Israel to fulfill its duty as a nation of priests. It is quite clear John was under Nazarite vow from Luke. anyone of the Nation of Israel could take this vow. But it would not make them a priest, nor give them the right to fulfill the role of one in anointing others for the priesthood.