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Old 02-14-2008, 01:01 AM
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Originally Posted by Diligent View Post
My understanding is that some people read "husband of one wife" as excluding men who have re-married after divorce from being a bishop. But I don't quite understand that, since John 4:17,18 seems to indicate that past marriages are not present marriages, so why is an ex-wife considered a "present" wife?
I agree. I believe a husband of one wife means that he is only married to one woman and that he is faithful to his wife.

I bring up this verse again,
1 Corinthians 7:15 But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace.
Is it only Pastors that are still under bondage of a marriage when their unbelieving spouse departs?