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Old 06-11-2009, 02:49 PM
Bro. Parrish
Posts: n/a

Originally Posted by Greektim View Post
If it has been there all the time, then I am missing the significance of the KJV's capitalization emphasis.
Come on son, let's be clear... you "miss the significance" of the KJV as the complete and final authority anyway, so why are you still here beating about the bush and going on about "inspired originals" which you have never seen or handled?

Originally Posted by Greektim View Post
If the KJV was bringing out a theological point like Melchizedek as a type of Christ by capitalizing "king", then what about the emphasis in capitalization pre-1611 or pre-English translations? The type might have been there, but the significance or the emphasis wasn't until the KJV. That seems to be 1 of 2 things: translators bias in the translation to make a theological point or new revelation...
Ahhh yes, that nasty translator bias. And there it is, like a dead catfish in the sunlight. NOW you are finally getting to the point of your entire thread. Your preconceived notions on the Bible are peeking through your "honest questions," like worms between the apples.