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Scrivener has 1 John 5:7 in it - and he also has the same as all the other Greek TR texts in Hebrews 10:23.
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Scrivener did not fully present the actual Greek text underlying the KJB, although all differences may be translational only. Those who have reviewed his work on the Greek claim that he has omitted to present in Greek where the KJB is said to be following the Latin.
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Slander is not becoming of a professing believer. Yes, Scrivener was part of the committee, at first - they did not listen to his words of caution and disagreement. He did his Greek translation because he wanted to expose their corruption and changes in the underlying manuscripts. He did his text to uphold the KJV, not tear it down.
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First of all, I am not making a slanderous statement, as you will note, I said, "Having studied Scrivener's work on the King James Bible". I am making a statement which is factual and true. And my statement is that Scrivener made unnecessary changes to the KJB. I also believe that his work in Greek is a deviation. If you look on my website you will find a draft of my book which contains various studies linked with the Scrivener's KJB issue.
Second, while Scrivener did disagree to Westcott, Hort and the others to a point, he did not disagree enough to disavow himself of the work, nor did he hesitate to supervise the printing of their new Greek text, nor did he refrain from making remarks favourable to the Revised Version. There are numerous statements from Scrivener's book which are against the King James Bible, its tradition and its textual basis.
Third, Scrivener was not upholding the KJB. If he did, why would he have to change the constructed underlying text as presented by Lloyd? (Please let me know if there is a valid reason.) Why did he partake of the Revised Version? Why did he make numerous changes in the King James Bible himself, including altering passages such as Hebrews 10:23 in the English?
P.S. I am talking about two different things, his Greek and his English.