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Old 05-21-2009, 12:05 AM
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bibleprotector bibleprotector is offline
 
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However, just because the Greek and Hebrew is not our language today does not mean that there is absolutely no benefit in the original languages in regards to the definition of words.
As far as the Bible is concerned, there is no need for the original languages to understand the Scripture today, since it is settled that it is a perfect TEXT and perfect TRANSLATION.

If someone comes across an English word, say, “propitiation”, “Ghost”, or “alway”, running to the Hebrew and Greek, or to lexicons as such are NOT a vital step in Scripture interpretation.

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Many people will argue, "Don't waste your time with the Greek and just look up the word in the 1828 Webster's dictionary."
I am not saying that. I do not even use Webster’s 1828.

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Yet how do you think Mr. Noah Webster came about his definitions of words. He dissected those words and resorted to their origins (many of which was Greek - check it out).
You are talking about an American Bible reviser from 1828.

Will Webster really be able to give us definitions and benefits by going to the Hebrew and Greek?

This is the superior method:

1. Read the context.
2. Compare that passage with other Scripture passages.

Now, a person could also go look at the Oxford English Dictionary, but that is not necessary. On a basic level, any reputable wordlist might be alright. But using the context/conference principle, you will be on the solid ground of Scripture. Also, I would think that it is quite good for people to hear what Bible teachers (and commentators) say when they are sound.

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The point is that there IS a benefit that can be had in referring to the Greek and Hebrew when studying the definition of a certain word.
There is a benefit to the etymologist, because his knowledge has increased, but there is no requirement for the normal Christian, because it is ultimately the Spirit of God who guides into truth, not dallying about with (supposed) meanings of Hebrew and Greek words.

Where is the sure, absolute definition of Hebrew and Greek anyway?

Now, how will Hebrew or Greek be helpful to know the meanings of these words?

PROPITIATION. GHOST. ALWAY.

1. These are Bible words in our perfect KJB.
2. These are English words, not Hebrew and Greek, and they do not have Hebrew and Greek meanings. Even dictionaries give their meaning in English!

"Propitiation" comes from Latin. "Ghost" and "alway" come from Old English (Anglo-Saxon).

A person with English only can find out the difference between “alway” and “always” without ever having to consult the original languages.

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And by doing so, the Bible student is not undermining the KJV by simply availing himself of the very resources that God Himself preserved.
If the Hebrew and Greek have been providentially preserved by God today, then this would require a usefulness for them, that is, that the perfect King James Bible is somehow incomplete (that is, we cannot fully interpret it), unless we have the Hebrew and Greek. That would be making the King James Bible today in some way dependant upon knowledge of the Hebrew and Greek, or on works which bring that out to us. This is the very scholar-onlyism which the whole KJBO position rejects. We do not still need the Hebrew and Greek to be able to comprehend fully God’s Word, because God has fully given it in English, and is well able to bring us into knowledge as we study it.

This leads us to see that God has not especially providentially preserved the originals today, but the KJB, which has all the signs of the divine favour upon it and throughout it!

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Does he HAVE to do this? No. But is he wrong, or apostate, or a Bible corrector if he does this? Not at all. And there's nothing written ANYWHERE or revealed by God that says he is.
The problem is that a person who must consider the Greek and Hebrew somehow must automatically assume that what he has in English is not enough. That is, God was not powerful enough to get all His truth into English alone, but somehow there must be a link back to the original languages. This speedily becomes obvious in the reasons people give for justifying their journeys back to the originals. They think that they will gain more knowledge by it.

Pr 22:21 That I might make thee know the certainty of the words of truth; that thou mightest answer the words of truth to them that send unto thee?

Lu 1:4 That thou mightest know the certainty of those things, wherein thou hast been instructed.