Steve,

Last try on this subject. The moderators may do what they wish, I will abide by any decision they put forth.

In Hebrew, "-im" suffixes indicate plural. I am not saying that it is always wrong to translate an "-im" word as a singular, but the fact remains that it is a plural form in Hebrew. Commentators for centuries have discussed how "Elohim" is a plural form word for a single God, and used this fact as support for the Trinity doctrine. Without the plural aspect, this support for the Trinity would be fallacious. However, just because this plural form can (and should) be translated as a singular in certain cases does not change the fact that it is in plural form to begin with, nor does it mean we can use the exceptions of a rule to argue against a rule itself. All I'm saying here is that to claim that translating the plural "shamayim" as a plural "heavens" is an error in Gen 1:1, simply because the KJV didn't do it, is a circular argument. I'm not saying it is wrong, but I am saying that you need something a lot more convincing to prove it must be this way in this instance (especially since the exact same Hebrew is translated "heavens" in dozens of other places in the KJV). I am not going to spend time picking apart every other instance, for such an effort would take more time than I am willing to spend on this, especially when the fruitfulness of such a discussion is in serious doubt.

In other words, I am not saying there is an error in the KJV in this verse, I am saying that I believe there is an error (or at least a glaring inconsistency) in the logic behind the accusation against the NKJV in this verse. If you are really interested in integrity, you will deal with the points I am actually making rather than the points I am not.

God bless,
Brian