[Here Am I]

Originally Posted by Just_A_Thought

I have a question...

Where did the belief that the KJV was inspired come from? This always confuses me between the teaching of the KJV being purified and then the teaching that it was inspired and perfect from 1611 on. Can someone show me what I am missing on this? Thanks!

"Jesus said unto him, If thou canst believe, all things are possible to him that believeth.
And straightway the father of the child cried out, and said with tears, Lord, I believe; help thou mine unbelief." (Mark 9:23,24)

There are any number of people here who would love to help you, but until you truly want to understand, you won't be able to.

When, deep down inside your self, you truly desire to know God and understand His word, He'll make it clear. Until then, don't be surprised if some people get tired of what appears to be scoffing coming from you, and choose to ignore your 'questions'.

I wish you the best. May your heart someday be tender and yielding to God's word.