View Single Post
  #4  
Old 06-09-2008, 10:51 PM
pneuby pneuby is offline
 
Join Date: Apr 2008
Posts: 27
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by pbiwolski View Post
Upon examination of the alledged discrepancies, you forgot who the speaker is - Jesus Christ! If you think "changing the words is allowed by Him, so it's okay for today" you're forgetting something very important...

It's about who the author is - the Holy Spirit. He can add, subtract, and do whatever He wants to to His word, for He is God, and the words are His.

In short, the only reason they "altered" the words of the OT is because they were led (inspired) by God to do so. No one today can claim this liberty.
Lates say I accept quoted scripture, in an altered form, as re-inspiration. What about when it's being read, and not merely quoted from memory? I found this pretty interesting on another site:

Excerpted from...
Jesus is NOT KJV-only
by Brian Tegart


In Luke 4:16-21, we read the account of Jesus in the synagogue, where he reads a passage of scripture aloud:

(KJV) "And he came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up: and, as his custom was, he went into the synagogue on the sabbath day, and stood up for to read. [17] And there was delivered unto him the book of the prophet Esaias. And when he had opened the book, he found the place where it was written, [18] The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised, [19] To preach the acceptable year of the Lord. [20] And he closed the book, and he gave it again to the minister, and sat down. And the eyes of all them that were in the synagogue were fastened on him. [21] And he began to say unto them, This day is this scripture fulfilled in your ears."

The passage that Jesus read from is Isaiah 61:1-2a. Here is that passage.. as it appears in the KJV, with significant differences:


The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised, To preach the acceptable year of the Lord.The Spirit of the Lord GOD is upon me; because the LORD hath anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he hath sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound; To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD

What makes this comparison especially interesting, is 1. the differences are not simply due to translating from Hebrew versus translating from Greek, nor 2. more importantly, the differences are not due to Jesus paraphrasing nor exercising his authority as God and changing or producing scripture (as some KJV-only supporters have tried to explain this difference as). The immediately surrounding text of Luke makes it clear this is not the case, not once, but four times:

Jesus stood up to "read" (Luke 4:16), not simply orate.
Jesus read from a "book" (Luke 4:17).
Luke provides the passage, telling us it was "written" (Luke 4:17).
Jesus tells his hearers that the "scripture" (Luke 4:21) he just read was fulfilled in their ears. Scripture is, by definition, written. "Scripture", as an English word, comes from the Latin scriptura, "what is written", which in turn comes from from scriptus, the past participle of scribere, "to write".

If Jesus altered the words, if he paraphrased or introduced a new revelation of "the word of God", it would not be "scripture" as he himself called it until his words were written down later by Luke.

What Jesus stood to read, what Luke said was written, what Jesus said was scripture - is different than what the KJV has {in the Old Testament}. end excerpt