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Old 05-02-2008, 03:36 PM
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Originally Posted by sophronismos View Post
From Biblecorrector's website:

But the 1611 itself says "Gaba" doesn't it? So then, if any edition says Geba rather than Gaba, it is not by preserving what the 1611 says, but by going back again to the Hebrew and re-transliterating! Who gave your 1900 bible correctors the authority to do that?
Take a look at Neh 7:30. Name spellings are not really important.

Last edited by MDOC; 05-02-2008 at 03:40 PM.