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Old 09-23-2008, 09:27 PM
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bibleprotector bibleprotector is offline
 
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Someone replied, "Remember that strait and narrow in the New Testament are completely different words than strait and narrow in the Old Testament."

So, when does "strait" not mean "strait"? When you run to the so-called Hebrew and Greek, and try make "strait" mean something else...

The issue comes down to whether we rely upon the words in English as authoritative, or whether we must rely upon the authority of men to reveal to us the mysteries of the so-called "real" original meaning.

First of all, there is no settled perfect edition of either the Hebrew or the Greek today, so textually it is impossible to know for complete certainty what words actually belong in the original languages. (The modernists know this full well.)

Second of all, the division is between those (modernists) who believe that there is no settled perfect method of translation, nor actual product of translation that is definitive, and those who believe that there is only one: the King James Bible.

The proper meaning is in English, whether one original word is translated differently (e.g. nations, Gentiles or heathen), or whether various original words are translated to one English word (e.g. love).

If one takes the King James Bible as the basis and foundation, and from there studies and shows doctrine properly, surely this would be the truth. There is a growing and developing in understanding, so that people may come to a more perfect knowledge of the truth.

Doctrinal issues should be addressed on this basis. For example, the narrow way is not synonymous with the strait gate. The narrow way comes afterward. Going through the gate is one thing, and being on the narrow way then follows. Going through the gate is a fixed point, being on the narrow way is relative. The issue then is whether or not it is possible to venture off or abandon the narrow way.