I am searching through previous threads for help in answering a friend's question, but thought I would post it here for any of you to share your best answers, as I am new to these Apologetics. Thank you for your help. Here is the question:
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What does one make of the New Testament use of the LXX when the KJV relies on the MT? Also, the LXX version of Jeremiah is 1/8 shorter than the MT version of the same. Why does the New Testament quote from the LXX Vorlage of the book of Jeremiah when the KJV uses the MT version of Jeremiah?
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Shalom,
Tandi