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Old 07-25-2009, 02:26 PM
CKG CKG is offline
Join Date: Dec 2008
Location: Warner Robins, Georgia
Posts: 197

Originally Posted by Brother Presswood View Post
I believe Jesus summed it up pretty well for us when he said:
Matthew 19:4 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,
5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?
6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so

It is my opinion, based upon Jesus' own words, that God's original intent from the beginning was, one man for one woman for one lifetime.

I quoted those exact passages repeatedly on another thread when the topic of polygamy came up stating that God's original intent for marriage was one man and one woman and on more than one one occasion I was told the context of the passage was "putting away" implying that the context (putting away) somehow nullified what Jesus said in verses 5 and 6. My question for these folks is if the context is "putting away" then what is being put away? A spouse! You don't talk about divorce without also talking about marriage. The pharisees asked Jesus a question about putting away and Jesus responded by telling them God's intent for marriage. He is quoting what has already been said in Genesis 2 (and He ought to know since He was there) and what Paul affirms again in Ephesians 5. Notice also Jesus didn't say Moses permitted putting away because they had found grace in God's sight; it was because of the hardness of their hearts! If God's intention for marriage is one man and one woman, then divorce and polygamy are deviations from God's will and same-sex marriage is just a plain out perversion of it. All through out the New Testament books whenever the topic of marriage and divorce are written about the indication is one man for one woman. On the topic of polygamy, why do folks keep running to passages in the OT that were written for the Jew under the Law to somehow try and apply them to the church age saint?