Bibleprotecter,
Since you basically repeated everything you said the first time you posted on this thread I will only respond to a something that continually pops up in your many words.
You keep bringing up this thing about "to us". God's words "to us".
It's pretty obvious that to the English speaker God has provided His infallible Words in the KJB. It is also well understood by everyone that the type of language in the Received Texts are no longer in use. Therefore, it is best for the English speaker to simply trust God's perfect Words in English - the KJB - rather than feel obligated to be a Greek or Hebrew scholar in order to understand God's words. Such is not necessary.
However, just because the Greek and Hebrew is not our language today does not mean that there is absolutely no benefit in the original languages in regards to the definition of words. Many people will argue, "Don't waste your time with the Greek and just look up the word in the 1828 Webster's dictionary." Yet how do you think Mr. Noah Webster came about his definitions of words. He dissected those words and resorted to their origins (many of which was Greek - check it out). The point is that there IS a benefit that can be had in referring to the Greek and Hebrew when studying the definition of a certain word. And by doing so, the Bible student is not undermining the KJV by simply availing himself of the very resources that God Himself preserved. Does he HAVE to do this? No. But is he wrong, or apostate, or a Bible corrector if he does this? Not at all. And there's nothing written ANYWHERE or revealed by God that says he is.
Again, God's words never expire. God's words will ALWAYS be God's words.
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