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Old 02-29-2008, 09:35 PM
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bibleprotector bibleprotector is offline
 
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Of course you can have a symbolic and then literal fulfilment.

This is the famous example:

"Behold, I will send you Elijah the prophet before the coming of the great and dreadful day of the LORD" (Malachi 4:5).

"And his disciples asked him, saying, Why then say the scribes that Elias must first come? And Jesus answered and said unto them, Elias truly shall first come, and restore all things. But I say unto you, That Elias is come already, and they knew him not, but have done unto him whatsoever they listed. Likewise shall also the Son of man suffer of them. Then the disciples understood that he spake unto them of John the Baptist." (Matthew 17:10-13).

Christ says that John the Baptist was Elijah, but this is symbolic, and he also says that Elijah is still literally coming. (Matthew 17:3, 9 is only a vision.)

Therefore, it is entirely valid to interpret Revelation symbolically to apply to Christian history, and then to apply it literally to a pre-Millennial seven year tribulation period. This is because the narrative has two meanings which do not contradict but complement each other.