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Old 02-23-2008, 03:28 PM
jerry
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I am sure the KJV translators knew what they were doing. Look at the context - the name is already used in verse 14. I Am That I Am/I Am is the exact same words as Jehovah - in fact, it is the meaning of Jehovah/LORD.

Exodus 3:13-15 And Moses said unto God, Behold, when I come unto the children of Israel, and shall say unto them, The God of your fathers hath sent me unto you; and they shall say to me, What is his name? what shall I say unto them? And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you. And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.

Sure, if they rip verse 15 out of the context it seems like an oversight - however, taken in context, it is obvious that God's name was already mentioned, so there was no need to repeat that in the very next sentence.

Then in chapter 6 we see this:

Exodus 6:3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.