You are stretching your understanding of scripture just to "be right". That is dangerous.
On what grounds do you think verse 7 is referring to something described two verses ago, when it would also make sense to be referring to something in its immediate context?
YOUR interpretation is strange. In the middle of this plan to preserve "the poor" (as you claim), the Pslamist just randomly inserts verse 6? Talking about how pure the words are, describing their puity,a nd then go right back to talking about the oppression of the poor? That does not make sense.
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