[bibleprotector]

Originally Posted by HowlerMonkey

While it is true that the idea for the Penny can trace it's roots back to the Roman Denarius

Then what is the issue?

Originally Posted by HowlerMonkey

it is not correct to call the Denarius and the Penny "the same thing."

It is correct to say that Jesus handled a penny, regardless of the shape, size, composition, superscription and relative value of either coin. The fact remains that there is a direct link between the English coin and the Roman one, therefore it is entirely correct to call the coin Jesus handled a penny.

But let us advance. If the problem is that an English word is being used to describe something from the time of Christ, then the problem must be that we have a Bible which is representing Christ speaking English, or that we are told that the soldiers had a "common hall" at Jerusalem, or that Herod waited for "Easter" to pass.

Originally Posted by HowlerMonkey

This is a case where the Greek illuminates the English translation. The Greek word used in Mark 12:42 is "Kodrantes" while the Greel word used in Matthew 10:29 and Luke 12:6 is "Assarion," These are TWO DIFFERENT TYPES OF COINS, but the AV translators use the same word for both of them!

This is an example of being confused by the "Greek", as though it "trumps" English. The word "farthing" always refers to a quarter value coin of low buying power. For example, we know that there was a Roman coin called the "quadrans", and that this was a quarter value coin. Thus, the word "farthing" in our English Bible is entirely accurate.

Let us advance. If the problem is that the same English word is being used for several meanings, then there would be an issue to calling someone "Jesus" who is not the Lord Christ (Col, 4:11, Heb. 4:8), or saying that someone was a lord or king, when God is Lord and King, or saying that God tempted Abraham (Gen. 22:1), when God does not tempt anyone (James 1:13).