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Old 10-15-2008, 07:13 PM
Posts: n/a

My replies are numbered according to your comments.

1. I understand that God inspired each word of the Bible. I believe this with all my heart. My point is that when the KJV translators translated the Bible from the original languages into English they had to make a decision as to what was meant by certain Greek or Hebrew words since many have multiple meanings. In order to accurately translate they had to have a great understanding of the Greek and Hebrew languages as well as the different cultures and contexts of the Bible. Therefore they had to know the "intended thought" of the specific inspired words that were in the original languages.

2. What specific "assessment/judgment" are you referring to?

3. I do not know how to explain this any better than I did in the second paragraph.

My main point has yet to be answered:

Originally Posted by tlewis3348 View Post
Having said all that, I would like to restate my main point. How can we say that the KJV is the only thing that we have today that is inspired today when there are good Christian men and women all over the world that cannot understand the English language? How has God preserved His Word to them? In addition, Did God preserve His Word before the KJV came into existence? Where was God's inspired Word to Martin Luther, Erasmus, Tyndale, Wycliffe, and King James himself? In other words, Where was God's inspired Word from A.D. 100-1611?