[Steven Avery]

Hi Folks,

Originally Posted by M Paul

...I asked Will to distinguish how upholding the KJV as the equivalent of canon had a basis different than what the Catholics use for establishing the Apocrapha ... So what's the point of having a conversation then??

Probably none, your whole concept is far too convoluted, so Will should, imho, simply pass it bye.

On top of that you misunderstand the RCC position - once again, they support the Apocrypha as some sort of special status, in any language, but they do not support the Greek OT (socalled Septuagint) since they have the Vulgate OT from Jerome as their text. It is groups like the Greek Orthodox who support the Greek OT as scripture over the Masoretic Text, not the RCC, nor any Jews. And the RCC official support of Apocrypha was largely a Council of Trent happenstance.

Plus you misunderstand the Reformation position by thinking that the Reformation canon is connected with the languages, thereby confusing discussions of inspiration (which talks of both the original languages and translation) with canon (which is totally 100% language-independent).

Most importantly you never say anything about your basic thesis, wrongly stated as Protestant fact, that canon is only in original languages. So overall you are about two levels removed from really having a dialog. You would do well to try to grasp the basic concepts a bit better rather than throwing out disjointed factoids.

If this sounds harsh, there is little I can say. Nothing personal meant, and I do hope you move more to understanding the purity and perfection of the Bible in our hand, as expressed and defended by Will and others. I saw your original post and was a bit perplexed about the mish-mosh. The problems have not been alleviated with your piled-up explanations, where you bury real solid understanding underneath factoid city.

Shalom,
Steven