Quote:
Originally Posted by Steven Avery
Hi Folks,
Greetings Tandi ! If I try to hard .. nothing comes forth  .
On Genesis 1:1, some of the issues are very simple, like the consistency within Genesis 1. Afaik, the hebraic writings generally understood this, and the King James Bible, always pure, is our confirmation (or you can look at that vica versa). I will see what is available a bit later, there is some upthread, and I might be able to pull some of the solid rabbinics that confirms as well.
Let me just comment first...Afaik, there is no correlative grammatical issues (such as a verb in plural or singular form). So the word shamayim is translated fully by context in Genesis 1:1. Before context the singular/plural question is neutral (that is one place where our anti-pure-KJB person blundered). Fully, completely, neutral. The word shamayim is heaven or heavens solely by surrounding grammar (afaik, neutral as well in 1:1) and/or context. On the technical level, it is the context that declares the singular as correct. There is nothing grammatically impossible or even difficult about either 'heaven' or 'heavens', 'heaven' (singular) is simply internally consistent from God who is fully consistent. And providentially declared. If a person does not even know if the resurrection account of Mark is scripture or not, or that the 'faith of Christ' is different from the 'faith in Christ' or that Jeremiah 8:8 does not talk of 'lying scribes' with a false pen (the liar's paradox) you could not expect such a person to know and receive God's word in Genesis 1:1. Those with eyes of faith, knowing that God has given us his pure word, rest upon the sure word.
All for now, catching up on a few things . Welcome to the forum !
Shalom,
Steven
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Thank you for the info and welcome, Steven. I am sorry it took so long to post again. I have been reading through many interesting and informative posts, but I do not seem to know how to use the Search feature to find what I am looking for re: shamayim and other questions. Would you agree that the plural ending can indicate the superlative, rather than "more than one" in shamayim? So that Heaven in Gen. 1:1 refers to the Abode of God in this verse and not the atmosphere (first heaven) and outer space (second heaven)?
I have another question for you, or any who are reading.......
How should I answer a friend who claims that Jesus did not consider the Scriptures inerrant? Any zingers that clearly refute this? Also, could you direct me to resources/articles/posts concerning Biblical Inerrancy that are clear and concise? What are the best "zingers" for those who scoff?
Shalom,
Tandi