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Old 12-21-2008, 06:44 PM
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bibleprotector bibleprotector is offline
 
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Originally Posted by BrianT View Post
That is a circular argument, and also means scripture was in error until the KJV "corrected" this error.
Not at all. The Scripture was always correct. It is apparent that some presentations of the Scripture are corrupt. It meant "heaven" ever since Moses wrote it, and it was "heaven" in English all along. The change to "heavens" in English only happened in the twentieth century. Clearly it is a corruption.

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Unless the first verse is an overview of what the next two chapters talk about.
What lengths are you willing to go to prove the KJB wrong?

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I do not pretend my view is authoritative.
Then how do you know the Hebrew means "heavens"? I know it must have meant "heaven" because I know I have an accurate English Bible.

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Also, it means the KJV is not a preservation of scripture, but a correction of scripture.
So, none of this "all versions including the KJV" stuff: no, now we see it: the KJB is in error. I don't spend my time bashing modern versions, but some people seem to delight in taking up time and space doing anything to bash the KJB. It is quite Islamic!

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scripture was always in error until 1611
You think that way because you are applying a false meaning to the Hebrew today that did not exist there in the distant past. (Actually, you are not honestly dealing with the idea that you are fighting against, so you end up fighting a dishonest or slanted view of KJBO. It is like the Black Islamic cult saying that all white people are devils.)