One of my posts got lost in posting...
I'll try to remember what I said
1.. Diligent....
It doesn't matter what explanation of the verse you gave if..... the word is "him" and not "them" as mentioned. That is what I was talking about considering Gill to be wrong.
No.... Gill is not my final authority. Certainly He knew more about hebrew than you or I.
Here is a more detailed explanation of the hebrew
Quote:
The third person plural pronominal suffix on the verb is masculine, referring back to the “oppressed” and “needy” in v. 5 (both of those nouns are plural in form), suggesting that the verb means “protect” here. The suffix does not refer to אִמֲרוֹת (’imarot, “words”) in v. 6, because that term is feminine gender.
This is from the NET translation notes.....
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The jist of the issue is verse 5 and verse 6 can not meet because of the feminine gender of "words" in verse 6.
2. There are verses that talk about the preservation of the poor. For example..
Mat 5:3 Blessed are the poor in spirit: for theirs is the kingdom of heaven.
I would call that preservation. Here the poor are talked about eternally. Why can we not consider that the poor mentioned in....
John 12:8 For the poor always ye have with you; but me ye have not always.
Is talking about more than the poor that where on the earth during Our Lords advent?
Why can we not consider verse 7 is talking about the poor throughout all generations? I know our Lord loves the poor. He commanded the rich to give to the poor. He even told John the Baptist that the poor had the gospel preached to them. Lazarus was a poor man.....
I honestly believe that the poor have been preserved through all generations just like verse 7 says. Our Lord has keep them and served them for generation to generation.