Quote:
Originally Posted by bibleprotector
Suppose you have three copies made by school children who wrote down what they observed written in chalk in a classroom:
One says, "ABCDEFGHIJ...LMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ."
Another says, "ABCDEFGH...JKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ"
Another one says, "ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXY..."
The chalk was rubbed away long ago, but you have the three paper copies. You would be able to construct correctly what was written in chalk, even though it might now be some time later.
That is a very simple illustration of how the KJB is compared to the present copies and editions we have of Hebrew and Greek.
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That is not where I thought you were going. I was afraid you were going to say that the translation of 1611 was a new revelation or some such.
Correct me if I am wrong, do you believe that God has preserved His Word in full in the original languages, but that that preservation is spread amongst various manuscripts so that no single manuscript contains the perfect Word of God in full? I am not trying to put words in your mouth, but I am trying to better understand your position.