In passages where it states something to the effect of, "this is my name," they translated the word as "Jehovah." In the rest of the passages they translated it as LORD or Lord GOD (depending on the underlying Hebrew).

Does God have a problem with that? Did they play around with the Hebrew text to make it say "LORD" instead of "Jehovah"? No.

Consider all the places in the NT where the OT was quoted - how many times in the NT do we see the word "Lord" quoted from the OT "LORD"? Many places. The Greek kurios has the meaning of Lord. If God meant to have it always translated as "Jehovah", then we would find Jehovah quoted in the NT, whether in the Greek or the English - AND WE FIND IT IN NEITHER! You've been listening to too many cultists that want to change the Word of God.

Some examples:

Psalms 110:1 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

Acts 2:34 For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand,

Deuteronomy 6:16 Ye shall not tempt the LORD your God, as ye tempted him in Massah.

Matthew 4:7 Jesus said unto him, It is written again, Thou shalt not tempt the Lord thy God.

Isaiah 40:3 The voice of him that crieth in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the LORD, make straight in the desert a highway for our God.

Matthew 3:3 For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Esaias, saying, The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight.

Isaiah 1:9 Except the LORD of hosts had left unto us a very small remnant, we should have been as Sodom, and we should have been like unto Gomorrah.

Romans 9:29 And as Esaias said before, Except the Lord of Sabaoth had left us a seed, we had been as Sodoma, and been made like unto Gomorrha.

Joel 2:32 And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the LORD hath said, and in the remnant whom the LORD shall call.

Romans 10:13 For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.

I am sure that is enough examples, there are plenty more. Obviously, if the Lord Himself inspired the NT to say "Lord" where the OT translates that word as "LORD", then it is not a problem, except for the Bible critic or a cultist unwilling to accept any Bible they can hold in their hands (except for one they have edited).