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Originally Posted by pbiwolski
In attempt to show your education, you've displayed your ignorance. Making a statement like "the KJV got it wrong" proves exactly that. But now that seems to be the trend nowadays doesn't it?
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I am glad you can say that the KJV didn't get it wrong, yet you did not offer a reason why the KJV translators decided to transate a plural word as a singular. To me, it has a misleading effect on the interpretation of the Kingdom of the heavens. When people hear the phrase "kingom of heaven", they get the idea of Heaven/the abode of God/the eternal destination/aka the 3rd heaven. I think a literal translation would show that to not be the case, along with what you said about the context.