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Old 07-21-2009, 03:33 PM
Amanda S.'s Avatar
Amanda S. Amanda S. is offline
Join Date: Jul 2009
Location: TN
Posts: 177


I would ask why Paul found it necessary to stipulate that bishops, deacons, etc. be husbands of one wife if there were no members of the church who had more than one wife? If only one wife was allowed in those times among the gentiles, why did Paul bother to mention it?
Yes, we have to wonder a great deal of why Paul said certain things don't we? We could wonder that the reason he stipulated that a bishop or deacon be the husband of one wife is to differentiate between the OT where leaders such as Moses were permitted to have more than one wife.

I don't think I even need to comment on the question of whether a man can marry a man or a woman a woman. The practice of homosexuality is an abomination to God. Jesus gave the final word on marriage. His words are the final authority on any topic.

Believe it or not I recently got into a rather heated discussion over homosexuality not too long ago. A homeschooling "christian" friend said that while sodomy was wrong and an abomination in the OT the fact that very little if anything was said to the church that it wasn't necessarily wrong. There were things in the OT that were an abomination that we don't consider as an abomination now, according to her argument...I am not at all trying to hijack as this could be debated on another thread but you did remind me of this discourse