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Old 04-29-2008, 08:53 AM
againstheresies
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Diligent View Post
Of course you are -- you are saying that the word is inadequate and needs to be changed.

Anyway, several of us have already explained that we know what study means. You have constructed something of a straw man here by insisting people can only follow one narrow definition of the word study, and therefore offer up a new word that follows one narrow aspect of study.

It is you and the translators of the NKJV who are missing truth for your dogma's sake. There is nothing wrong with the word study in the KJV.

Rather than try to make a case that the word has changed meaning, you might ask yourslef why the KJV translators translated the word "study" in 2Ti 2:15 but "diligence" in 2Ti 4:9,21. Could it be that they simply knew more about the Greek word than you do? That they understood a contextual significance that eludes you? No, of course not -- why am I asking...
The KJV translators followed Tyndale in their reading of this passage. I still would like to hear a response to my argument.
1. The first Century Greek word (spoudazo) meant diligent.
2. In 1611 the English word (study) meant diligent
3. Today study does not mean diligent.
4. Today in this passage we should use diligence.