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Old 03-11-2009, 08:36 PM
CKG CKG is offline
 
Join Date: Dec 2008
Location: Warner Robins, Georgia
Posts: 197
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I've often heard the term "Bride of Christ", but have never thought too much about it and currently don't have a position on it so these are just a couple of observations.
John 3
26. And they came unto John, and said unto him, Rabbi, he that was with thee beyond Jordan, to whom thou barest witness, behold, the same baptizeth, and all men come to him. 27. John answered and said, A man can receive nothing, except it be given him from heaven. 28. Ye yourselves bear me witness, that I said, I am not the Christ, but that I am sent before him. 29. He that hath the bride is the bridegroom: but the friend of the bridegroom, which standeth and heareth him, rejoiceth greatly because of the bridegroom's voice: this my joy therefore is fulfilled. 30. He must increase, but I must decrease.
Looking at the context it's obvious John the Baptist is "the friend of the bridegroom, which standeth and heareth him," and "rejoiceth greatly because of the bridegroom's voice:". John was the one sent to prepare the way of the Lord and as a witness of Him so when Jesus came John could say "my joy therefore is fulfilled". If John was not the friend, but as an Israelite a member of the bride of Christ, he would not have said "He (Jesus) must increase, but I must decrease".

John 1
29. The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world. 30. This is he of whom I said, After me cometh a man which is preferred before me: for he was before me. 31. And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water.


This passage doesn't say anything about a bride or bridegroom. It says "that he (Jesus) should be made manifest to Israel". Was He made manifest to Israel as their bridegroom? Wouldn't it make more sense to say He was made manifest as their Messiah (John 1:41) or their King (Matthew 4:17, 21:1-5)?