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Old 06-17-2009, 12:19 AM
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greenbear greenbear is offline
 
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Forrest View Post
Here’s something to chew on. Why the word fornication as grounds for “putting away” and not adultery?
Matthew 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

Matthew 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
And remember Joseph and his desire?
Matthew 1:18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.

1:19 Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily.
Why would Joseph need to “put away” Mary when they were only espoused? And why was Joseph called her “husband” when they were only espoused? For the Jew/Israelite/Hebrew the espousal was binding, but in the case of fornication, it could be broken with a formal writing of divorce.

This is why the Pharisees accused Jesus of being born in fornication. They did not believe as true Christians do that He was born of a virgin.
John 8:41 Ye do the deeds of your father. Then said they to him, We be not born of fornication; we have one Father, even God.
Forrest,

Your reference to Mary and Joseph reminds me of something I was wondering on the Love and Race thread (that changed topic to marriage between believer and unbeliever).

Do you think the virgins Paul refers to in 1 Cor chapter 7 are or include betrothed virgins?

If the virgins do include betrothed virgins, then there were probably instances where one of the betrothed parties became a believer and the other didn't. It seems reasonable to think that the situation arose where the believer would have to make a decision whether to put away or be put away rather than marry their unbelieving betrothed. If Paul is referring to this, and that's a big if, then would this be a circumstance where marriage between believer and unbeliever would not be frowned upon by God?

Would I be correct in assuming that a woman who had been put away could not marry anybody else and neither could the man who put her away?

The verses in bold I thought might apply to this scenario.

If you, or George, or anyone else have any comments I would appreciate reading them.

Jennifer


1 Corinthians 7:25 Now concerning virgins I have no commandment of the Lord: yet I give my judgment, as one that hath obtained mercy of the Lord to be faithful.

1 Corinthians 7:28 But and if thou marry, thou hast not sinned; and if a virgin marry, she hath not sinned. Nevertheless such shall have trouble in the flesh: but I spare you.

1 Corinthians 7:34 There is difference also between a wife and a virgin. The unmarried woman careth for the things of the Lord, that she may be holy both in body and in spirit: but she that is married careth for the things of the world, how she may please her husband.

1 Corinthians 7:35 And this I speak for your own profit; not that I may cast a snare upon you, but for that which is comely, and that ye may attend upon the Lord without distraction.

1 Corinthians 7:36 But if any man think that he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin, if she pass the flower of her age, and need so require, let him do what he will, he sinneth not: let them marry.

1 Corinthians 7:37 Nevertheless he that standeth stedfast in his heart, having no necessity, but hath power over his own will, and hath so decreed in his heart that he will keep his virgin, doeth well.

1 Corinthians 7:38 So then he that giveth her in marriage doeth well; but he that giveth her not in marriage doeth better.

Last edited by greenbear; 06-17-2009 at 12:28 AM.