Brother Tony, et al:
Bro. Parrish has put so well what I may have said, that I can add nothing more.
Bro. George answered the two questions with his usual overwhelming flood of Scripture references that I need not give more detail, only to summarize what would have been the gist of my response:
Question #1: "Was John the Baptist the first Baptist?"
As simply as can be said: He is the only one given that name in the Scriptures.
Question #2: "Why was Jesus Christ, God manifest in the flesh, baptized in water?"
When John himself asked that question, we find Jesus' answer in Matthew 3:15: "And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him."
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To all:
I have been working this issue over before the LORD since I first posted the poll and saw the initial responses. After reading Tony's replies, and the several brethren's replies noted above, I consider that the issue is more a question of dispensational divisions rather than the question of baptism itself. The definition/purpose of believer's baptism has been adequately explained above. There is evidently a wide gap in that definition and the one proposed by those who see it as an OT act only.
Because I view Israel and the church differently than many here, I do not consider myself appropriate to discuss whether or not the present dispensation includes the teachings of Jesus in the Gospel or not. I will step back briefly, though there are a few sideline questions that I want to ask a bit later.
Just one comment & question for now:
Tony, you speak of Jesus' instruction in Matthew 28 as addressing "the Law of Moses". The word "law" or "Law" does not exist in the command given by the LORD there. To whom exactly was Jesus giving the commission? The 11 apostles? The collection of disciples of that present time (120-500?)? All believers including us?
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